NLNG Past Questions And Answers For Aptitude Test

NLNG Past Questions And Answers For Job, Industrial Training (SIWES) and Scholarship Aptitude Test is all I have got for you right here. Continue reading to get used to how NLNG Sets questions, answers to NLNG Questions and Complete explanations.

NIGERIA LNG APTITUDE TEST PAST QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS

Quantitative Reasoning – (20 minutes) TEST ONE:

There are 20 questions in this test and you should answer as many as you can.

Question 1

How many patients from this sample have suffered from depression in 1995?

A. 1150 patients B. 1155 patients C. 1375 patients D. 1455 patients E. 1535 patients

Correct answer: C

Explanation

55% of the 1995 sample suffered from depression. The sample consists of 2500 participants ? 0.55 = 1,375 patients suffered from depression in 1995.

Question 2

From the sample, how many less patients suffered from Bipolar disorder between 2000 and 2005?

A. 225 patients
B. 250 patients
C. 350 patients
D. 375 patients
E. 400 patients

Correct answer: B

Explanation

In 2000, 15% of the sample (2500) suffered from Bipolar disorder= 2500 x 0.15 = 375 patients. In 2005, 5% of the sample (2500) suffered from Bipolar disorder = 2500 x 0.05 = 125 patients. 375-125=250 less patients suffered from Bipolar disorder in 2005 than in 2000.

An additional way to do the math is simply look at the graph and note the difference in percentages between 2005 and 2000 which is 10% (15-5).
10% of the entire sample (2500) is 250 and we can calculate this without making use of a calculator.

Question 3

A new revolutionary medication is introduced in 2005. This medication immediately alleviates symptoms for 20% of the patients suffering from the 4 mental disorders presented here. Assuming that, starting from 2005, such a treatment will be given to the original sample every 5 years with an identical success rate in percentages, how many patients comprising the sample will remain mentally ill by the year 2020?

A. 1,024 Patients B. 1,048 Patients C. 1,280 Patients D. 1,000 Patients E. 2,000 Patients Correct answer: A

Explanation

The medication is introduced in 2005 reducing mental illness for a sample of 2500 by 20% = 0.2 x 2500 = 500 cured patients and a total of 2000 (2500 ? 500) patients remain ill.
In 2010 another 20% will be cured from the remaining group of mentally ill people in the original sample (2000) = 0.2 x 2000 = 400 additional patients cured and a total of 1600 (2000- 400) remaining ill.

In 2015 another 20% will be cured from a remaining sample of 1600= 0.2 x 1600 = 320 additional patients cured and a total of 1280 (1600-320) remaining ill.
In 2020 another 20% will be cured from a remaining sample of 1280 = 0.2 x 1280 = 256 additional patients cured and a total of 1024 (1280-256) patients still remain ill.

Question 4

In the following 15 years it is expected that the trends seen from 2000 onwards for Anxiety and OCD will continue at the same rate. What will be the expected ratio between the two in the year 2020?

A. 2:5
B. 1:2
C. 1:3
D. 2:3
E. 1:1

Correct Answer: E

Explanation

Between 2000 to 2005 there was a reduction of 5% from 30% to 25% of patients suffering from Anxiety.
In the same time frame the prevalence of OCD remained 10%.
Assuming this trend continues, OCD will remain constant at 10% while Anxiety is expected to loose 5% every 5 years. i.e., drop from 25% in 2005, to 20% in 2010, to 15% in 2015, and finally to 10% in 2020.

The ratio of Anxiety to OCD in 2020 assuming the present trend continues will be 1:1 (10%:10%).

Question 5

Rate the ratio of Depression to OCD patients in the sample from largest to smallest by years.

A. 1985, 1990, 1995, 2000, 2005 B. 1990, 1985, 1995, 2005, 2000 C. 2000, 2005, 1995, 1985, 1990 D. 1990, 2000,1995, 1985,2005 E. 2000, 2005, 1985, 1990, 1995

Correct answer: B

Explanation

The Depression to OCD ratio in 1985 = 60% : 5% = 12 :1
The Depression to OCD ratio in 1990 = 65% : 5% = 13:1
The Depression to OCD ratio in 1995 = 55% : 5% = 11:1
The Depression to OCD ratio in 2000 = 45% : 10% = 4.5:1 = 9:2
The Depression to OCD ratio in 2005 = 60% : 10% = 6:1
Therefore, putting the ratio in order from largest to smallest by years = 1990, 1985, 1995, 2005, 200

Question 6

A business has been ordering 50 shirts through Master Ad on a monthly basis for the past year. What would be the percent change of their annual order if they are to start working with Big- time starting next year?

A. 2.6
B. 24.58
C. 28.47
D. 42.65
E. 46.56
Correct answer: A

Explanation

Since we are dealing with equal time periods, there is no need to take into calculation the number of months! Simply look for the price difference and the fact that BrandMad offers 15% percent off annual campaigns [(1920*0.85)-1310]/1310 =0.2458 = 24.58%.
A quicker way to calculate percentages is:

(1920*0.85/1310)-1 = 0.2458=25.58%

Question 7

If brand mad were to increase their prices in 10%, what would be the net change in price of an order that includes 1000 pens, 2000 match boxes, and 300 shirts?

A. 926.2
B. 833.58
C. 888.79
D. 907.51
E. 1014
Correct answer: B

Explanation

To speed up the calculations, look for operations which repeat themselves.
In this case, there is no need in multiplying each product by 1.1 which represents the 10% increase, rather multiply the whole expression by 1.1 once. Then, multiply the result by 0.9, since it is mentioned that a 10% discount is offered for above 1000 pounds purchases.
{ 1.1 X [ (6*1127) + (2*700) + (2*550) ] } – [(6*1127) + (2*700) + (2*550)] = 926.5 926.5*0.9=833.58

Question 8

In 2011, Spain’s population is 46 million, and France’s population is 65 million. In percent, how many more unemployed are in Spain?

A. 70.6
B. 41.5
C. 35.3
D. 28
E. Cannot say Correct answer: B

Explanation

(Spain’s unemployed) / (France’s unemployed)-1: (46,000,000*0.16)/(65,000,000*0.08)-1= 0.415 = 41.5%

Question 9

In 2012, England’s population is to grow by a factor of 1.5 compared to 2011, being 12 times bigger than Netherland’s. What is England’s expected population size in 2012, in millions?

A. 64
B. 23
C. 84
D. 77
E. Cannot say Correct answer: E

Explanation

Given no real numbers on population sizes, this question cannot be solved. The answer is Cannot say.

Question 10

In 2009, there were 667,284 unemployed in Netherlands, whose population was 27.53% of the UK for that year. With a fixed annual population increase of 0.639%, approximately how many unemployed are in the UK in 2011?

A. 4,296,108
B. 4,801,138
C. 8,511,287
D. 6,987,322
E. 6,895,245

Correct answer: A

Explanation

Netherlands population 2009: 667,284/0.04 = 16,682,100 UK population 2009: 16,682,100/0.2753 = 60,596,077
UK population 2011: 60,596,077 * 1.006392 = 61,372,968 UK unemployed 2011: 61,372,968 * 0.07 = 4296108

Question 11
Approximately what is the percent increase of Sports department’s profit contribution between 2008 and 2009?

A. 15.6
B. 10.4
C. 11.2
D. 5.7
E. 17.7
Correct answer: B

Explanation

A simple percentage calculation. Either: (85/77) ? 1 = 0.1038=10.38% Or (77-85)/77 = 0.1038=10.38%

Question 12

What is the sum of profits gained through foreign investments + affiliates departments, in billions of Euros, in 2008-2009?

A. 1.278
B. 0.897
C. 1.21
D. 1.932
E. 2.000
Correct answer: C

Explanation

Adding the numbers gives:
570+592+82-34 =1210 million, which is 1.21 billion

Question 13

In 2011, foreign investments profits are expected to increase by 10%, and sports are to increase by 7%. What would be the difference between the two departments, in millions of Euros?

A. 81.24
B. 56.86
C. 79.36
D. 42.5
E. 58
Correct answer: B

Explanation

(1.1*112)-(1.07*62) = 56.86

Question 14

What percent does the consultancy department’s profit increase comprise of the total increase in profits between 2009 and 2010?

A. 5.314
B. 4.39
C. 7.36
D. 4.59
E. 8.477
Correct answer: B

Explanation

We need the relative share of consultancy ( 58-49 = 9 million), out of the whole increase: 9/[(610-592)+(406-381)+(112+34)+(58-49)+(62-85)+(5+25)]*100 = 4.39%

Question 15

What is the increase/decrease absolute profit ratio between affiliates and consultancy departments to the remaining departments, between the years 2008 and 2009?

A. 11:27 B. 24:96 C. 39:166 D. 1:4

E. 13:50
Correct answer: C

Explanation

The ratio is between two departments and the rest: Affiliates and consultancy: [(592-570)+(49-32) ]
The rest: [ (410-381) + (82+34) + (85-77) + (25- 12 ) ] Thus:

[(592 – 570)+(49-32)]:[(410-381)+(82+34)+(85-77)+(25-12) ]=39:166

Question 17

A leading company takes over the Aperitif production category, creating a monopoly which increases prices of Aperitif by 15% and degistif prices by 20%. What percent change to the total market value does this activity inflict?

A. 4.45
B. 27.59
C. 3.27
D. 31.2
E. 5.26
Correct answer:

Explanation

Here again, we don’t have to multiply each alcohol branch by 6200, we can multiply them all once , as following:
{6200*[(1.2*0.11+1.15*0.15)-(0.11+0.15)]} = 275.9 275.9/6200 = 4.45%.

Question 18

Relative market distribution did not change between 2010 and 2011, and whiskey sales were then worth 479 million dollars. The current market value of beer is what percent of the total market value of Alcohol in 2010?

A. 22.78
B. 7.72
C. 15.65
D. 19.64
E. 10.65 Correct answer:

Explanation

Total market value in 2010 = (479/0.08) = 5987.5 million dollars. 2011 Beer market value = 0.22*6200 = 1364 million dollars. 1364/5987.5 = 0.227=22.78%

Question 19

Which year shows the highest inflation rate?

A. 1-2
B. 3-4
C. 2-3
D. 2-3 and 3-4
E. None of the above Correct answer: E

Explanation

Inflation in this case does not change. Inflation is included in the nominal cash flow. Between each two years the inflation is always 3%, e.g.
(8240/8000) ? 1 = 0.03

Question 20 (id: 12410)
What interest rate was used to find the present value of payments in year 3, in percents?

A. 10
B. 46
C. 33
D. 21
E. 19
Correct answer: C
Explanation
(8487.2/6376.56)-1 = 0.33 = 33%

TEST TWO:

There are 20 questions in this test and you should answer as many as you can.

Question 1

How much does it cost to deliver a newspaper successfully in Sydney (excluding lost papers)?

A. $1.8
B. $2.0
C. $2.2
D. $2.4
E. Cannot Say Correct answer: E

Explanation

There is no information about newspaper prices, therefore we can?t figure out the answer based on the existing data.

NIGERIA LNG APTITUDE TEST PAST QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS

Verbal Reasoning – (15 mins for 20 questions)

TEST ONE:

Verbal Reasoning – Instructions

The verbal reasoning section measures your ability to think logically about written information.

In this test, you will be given passages of text and several statements relating to the text. You will

be asked to decide whether each statement follows logically from the information in the passage.

For each statement there are three answer options:

False – This means that, on the basis of information in the passage, the statement is false.

Passage A

The costs of roaming – the service which allows UK customers to use their mobile phone abroad – are much higher than those in France, Germany, Sweden and Italy. Many people get caught out because they are unaware of the high prices, and that they get charged for simply receiving calls whilst abroad. Less than a quarter of consumers had any knowledge of the price of using a mobile phone aboard when they bought their phone. Better consumer information is vital if prices for pre-pay international roaming in the UK are to come down.

Question 1

It is more expensive for German customers to use a roaming service than it is for UK customers.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say

True – This means that, on the basis of information in the passage, the statement is true or

follows logically from the passage.

Cannot Say – This means that it is not possible to tell from the information in the passage

whether the statement is true or false.

When answering each question, it is important to base your answer only on the information in

the passage and not on any other knowledge you may have of the subject matter.

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Correct answer: B

Explanation

The opposite is true since the passage says “the costs of [UK] roaming… are much higher than those in France, Germany”.

Question 2

Pay-as-you-go roaming rates are lower than they are for contract customers.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: C

Explanation

The passage does not compare pay-as-you-go with pre-pay.

Question 3

Customers can be charged for calls which they do not make themselves.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation

The passage states that customers “get charged for simply receiving calls while abroad”

Passage B

Globalisation is putting fresh pressure on mid-sized firms, with large companies moving into their markets and dictating prices. This kind of company feels the pressure on all sides. They are too large to qualify for the grants and assistance that small enterprises can count on, but are too small to wield the kind of influence their larger competitors can bring to bear. But despite the squeeze, most mid-sized firms still believe that they can deliver steady growth, by playing to their traditional strength: being more nimble and more customer-focused than their larger rivals.

Question 4

Large companies have a greater effect on prices than mid-sized companies.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

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Explanation

The first sentence says that large companies dictate the prices for mid-sized firms.

Question 5

The size of grant awarded to a company is indirectly proportional to the size of the company.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: C

Explanation

With the pressure of time, it might be tempting to answer True here. On careful reading of the passage, it describes how mid sized firms are too large to qualify for grants, but it does not say explicitly how the size of a grant might be related to the size of company. The question is stating quite a specific relationship, whereas all we are told is that small companies get grants and mid- sized firms do not. For example we are told nothing about the size of a grant a large company might get.

Question 6

Traditionally, mid-sized firms are faster than large companies at adapting to market changes.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation

The last sentence describes one of the traditional strengths of a mid-size firm as “being more nimble” which we can interpret to mean faster at adapting to change.

Passage C

If society seems obsessed with youth, it is at least partly because companies are. Like it or not, the young increasingly pick the styles and brands that trickle up to the rest of the population. Nike, Abercrombie & Fitch and Timberland first found success with the young, and when that clientele tired of them the companies felt the loss deeply. Now that adults are no longer necessarily expected to act and look grown-up, parents and children can be found listening to exactly the same music, playing the same computer games, watching the same TV programmes, and wearing the same brands of clothes and shoes.

Question 7

An adult’s style can sometimes be similar to that of a child.

A. True B. False

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C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation

The sentence that proves this is “parents and children can be found listening to exactly the same music, playing the same videogames? and wearing the same brands of clothes and shoes [as the young]”.

Question 8

The profits of Timberland are not affected by young customers.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: B

Explanation

The passage says that “when that clientele [the young] tired of them the companies felt the loss deeply”. Meaning that Timberland’s profits are in fact closely affected by the purchasing habits of the young.

Question 9

Adults wear the same shoes as children because they want to look younger.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: C

Explanation

The passage does not say why adults and children sometimes end up with the same styles. The passage implies that by listening to the same music and wearing the same clothes as young people, adults are not considered grown-up. But the passage does not say why some adults adopt this style (for example it could be price, comfort, or any number of reasons other than wanting to look younger, but we are not told.)

Passage D

Television is changing as it goes digital. The result will not only be better quality pictures and sound but also personal TV, with viewers able to tailor the programmes they watch and even interact with them. How much money this will make for programme producers or broadcasters, whoever they may be, is not so clear. Cable, satellite and terrestrial television broadcasters are upgrading their equipment to provide higher quality digital services. Rupert Murdoch’s News Corporation will become the first company in the world to migrate an entire national TV system over to digital when it turns off its old analogue version of its British satellite service, BSkyB.

Question 10

Rupert Murdoch is the owner of BSkyB.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation

This is stated it he passage where it says “Rupert Murdoch’s News Corporation? BSkyB”, meaning he is the owner.

Question 11

The only change from traditional analogue services to digital services will be the picture quality.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: B

Explanation

The passage says of switching from analogue to digital: “The result will be better quality pictures and sound but also personal TV, with viewers able to tailor the programmes they watch?”.

Question 12

Television broadcasters are upgrading their equipment because they will make more money from digital TV.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: C

Explanation

This is quite obvious since the passage explicitly says in the last sentence of the first paragraph that it is not clear how much money broadcasters will make from upgradin

Passage E

Brand equity has become a key asset in the world of competitive business. Indeed, some brands are now worth more than companies. Large corporations themselves are widely distrusted, whereas strangely, brands have the opposite effect on people. Brands are used to humanise corporations by appropriating characteristics such as courage, honesty, friendliness and fun. An example is Dove soap, where a dove represents white, cleanliness and peace. Volkswagen like to give the impression through their advertising that they are a reliable, clever, technical product. In a sense, rather than the product itself, the image and the idea are the selling point.

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Question 13

Brands have always been an important asset to a company.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: B

Explanation

The passage says “Brand equity has become a key asset in?” implying it has not always been.

Question 14

Many people distrust large corporations.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation

The passage says “Large corporations themselves are widely distrusted”. Widely implies an opinion held by many people, and the opinion held would be one of distrust.

Question 15

Dove soap chose a dove for their brand to give a sense of cleanliness and peace.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: C

Explanation

Whilst the passage does say that the dove gives an impression of “white, cleanliness and peace”, and therefore is a successful brand, the passage does not say how or why the company chose the brand in the first place

Passage F

The first problem with financial statements is that they are in the past; however detailed, they provide just a snap-shot of the business at one moment in time. There is also a lack of detail in financial statements, giving little use in the running of a business. Financial statements are provided for legal reasons to meet with accounting regulations and are used mainly by City analysts who compute share prices and give guidance to shareholders. Accounts often have hidden information and may also be inconsistent; it is difficult to compare different companies’ accounts, despite there being standards, as there is much leeway in the standards

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Question 16

Financial statements are useful for businesses to understand their financial activities.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say: Correct answer: B

Explanation

The passage says that financial statements have “a lack of detail in financial statements, giving little use in the running of a business”, which is supported by other critical statements such as “the first problem with financial statements is that they are in the past” means they cannot be considered useful for businesses to understand their financial activities

Question 17

Companies create financial statements in order to comply with their legal obligations.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation

This is stated here: “Financial statements are provided for legal reasons to meet with accounting regulations”.

Question 18

If account reporting standards were tightened, it would be easier to compare the performance of different companies.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation

The last sentence in the passage says “it is difficult to compare different companies’ accounts, despite there being standards, as there is much leeway in the standards”. This implies that if there were less leeway in the standards, it would be easier to compare different companies’ accounts. It is fair to say that the accounts of a company are tied to the ‘performance’ of a company, and so it would be easier to compare the performance of different companies if reporting standards were tightened

Passage G

Advertising and selling books via Internet sites is becoming more popular with traders. It costs less to publicise a book on the Internet than by traditional methods, and as books are stored in warehouses prior to being despatched to customers, overheads are lower than those of shops. True, the price war on the Internet is likely to put pressure on royalties, with publishers demanding that they be calculated not on the cover prices of books but on the prices actually received for them. However, these discounts will be greatest on best-sellers, rather than other books.

Question 19

The consumer demand for books sold on the Internet is increasing.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: C

Explanation

Though the passage states that selling books via Internet sites is becoming more popular with traders, it does not tell that consumer demand for books sold on the Internet is increasing

Passage H

The number of accidents, which occur during the course of the working day, will never be reduced to zero, regardless of the attempts of regulating bodies. This is because all activity inevitably involves some degree of risk and luck. However, it is possible to reduce the number of occupational accidents, and one way of doing this would be to impose punitive fines on organisations within which occupational accidents occur. Whilst this will result in cases of injustice to some organisations, the overall effect for the employee, in terms of securing a safer workplace, will surely be beneficial.

Question 20

Some accidents at work are the result of misfortune.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation

The statement is supported by the sentence. “This is because all activity inevitably involves some degree of risk and luck”.

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Verbal Reasoning – (15 mins for 20 qtns)

TEST TWO:

Verbal Reasoning – Instructions

The verbal reasoning section measures your ability to think logically about written information.

In this test, you will be given passages of text and several statements relating to the text. You will

be asked to decide whether each statement follows logically from the information in the passage.

For each statement there are three answer options:

False – This means that, on the basis of information in the passage, the statement is false.

Passage A

At any given moment we are being bombarded by physical and psychological stimuli competing for our attention. Although our eyes are capable of handling more than 5 million bits of data per second, our brain are capable of interpreting only about 500 bits per second. With similar disparities between each of the other sense and the brain, it is easy to see that we must select the visual, auditory, or tactile stimuli that we wish to compute at any specific time.

True – This means that, on the basis of information in the passage, the statement is true or

follows logically from the passage.

Cannot Say – This means that it is not possible to tell from the information in the passage

whether the statement is true or false.

When answering each question, it is important to base your answer only on the information in

the passage and not on any other knowledge you may have of the subject matter.

Question 1

Physical stimuli usually win in the competition for our attention.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot Say Correct answer: C

Explanation

Cannot say
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Question 2

The capacity of the human brain is sufficient to interpret nearly all the stimuli the sense can register under optimum condition.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot Say Correct answer: B

Explanation

False

Question 3

Eyes are able to cope with a greater input of information than ears.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot Say Correct answer: A

Explanation

True

Passage B

Scientists live in a necessary tension, holding fast to laws and regularities already discovered, while remaining alert to recognise anomalies and to judge whether these are errors of observation or hoaxes or clues to deeper coherence, a more profound law which will change the whole outlook of science.

Question 4

Some apparent scientific anomalies may just be hoaxes.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot Say Correct answer: A

Explanation

True

Question 5

The whole outlook of science will soon be changed.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot Say

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Correct answer: C Explanation

Cannot say

Question 6

The assumptions made by scientists are not subject to change.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot Say Correct answer: B

Explanation

False

Question 7

Events which seem to conflict with laws of science can lead to new insights.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot Say Correct answer: A

Explanation

True

Passage C

Researchers have successfully mapped the genetic code of the mouse and have generously elected to make their findings available to scientists everywhere. A genetic model of the mouse is of benefit to researchers because it is believed that one hundred million years ago, both mice and humans shared a common rodent-like ancestor. This makes mice ideal substitutes for humans in genetic studies. Therefore, the mouse is one of the most useful animals for studying cancer and other diseases.

Question 8

The research findings show that humans and mice once had a common ancestor.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. Cannot say Correct answer: B

Explanation

The first sentence in the passage states that successful mapping of the genetic code of mouse is the research result. From the second sentence of the passage, it is known that the sharing of a

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common rodent-like ancestor between mice and humans is a general belief. It is therefore a false statement.

Question 9

It is likely that these findings, due to a similar shared genetic code, will result in research that will lead to the eradication of cancer.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. Cannot say Correct answer: C

Explanation

There is insufficient information in the passage to establish how useful this research will ultimately be.

Passage D

The project was ambitious in its size, complexity, triparty nature, and in its pioneering of the Private Finance Initiative. This difficulty was unavoidable and contributed to the project’s failure. However, a more thorough estimate of the unknown difficulties and timescales would have enabled the Department to better prepare for the project, and increase its chance of success.

In December 1997, XSoft indicated they needed time to complete the project, which should have been inevitable. If the Department knew from the start how long the project would take, it is questionable whether they would have considered inception, especially considering the implications of delay on the overall profitability for the venture.

Question 10

If more care had been put into estimating the difficulties, it is less likely the project would have failed.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation

Since “more thorough” can be considered equivalent to “giving more care”, this is stated as true in the following excerpt: “a more thorough estimation of the unknown difficulties and timescales would…increase its chance of success”.

Question 11

XSoft witheld information from the Department regarding how long the project would take.

A. True B. False

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C. Cannot say Correct answer: C

Explanation

We are told XSoft requested more time, and the passage implies the Department did not know how long it would take at the beginning, but the passage does not tell us if XSoft did or did not withhold time information.

Question 12

The Department’s profits were dependent upon how long the project took.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation

We are told that there were “implications of delay on overall profitability for the venture”.

Passage E

Ever since the gun’s invention it has been changing the world in many different ways. Many of the developments in gun design have been brought about by man’s desire to protect himself, and the challenge of inventing bigger and more accurate weapons. Each time there has been a major innovation in the development of the gun, there has been a profound effect on the world. The gun helped in the exploration of the world and it has also helped in the development of society as we know it.

Question 13

The gun was invented because the human race needs to protect themselves.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: C

Explanation

The passage does not say how or why the gun was invented. It does say that some changes to the gun’s design have been because humans want to protect themselves, but the passage does not say how or why the gun was first invented.

Question 14

Guns are the reason our society is the way it is today.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say

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Correct answer: B

Explanation

The gun “has also helped in the development of society as we know it”. The word help implies it is not the only contributor and is therefore not the reason our society is the way it is today.

Question 15

Financial incentives had no part to play in the development of the gun.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: C

Explanation

The passage does not mention financial incentives or economic gain, so we cannot tell from information in the passage alone.

Passage F

Being socially responsible is acting ethically and showing integrity. It directly affects our quality of life through such issues as human rights, working conditions, the environment, and corruption. It has traditionally been the sole responsibility of governments to police unethical behaviour. However, the public have realised the influence of corporations and, over the last ten years, the level of voluntary corporate social responsibility initiatives that dictate the actions of corporations has increased

Question 16

The ethical actions of corporations has changed over the last ten years.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say

Your answer: Correct answer: A

Explanation

The passage says that the public have caused corporations to alter their ethical actions: “over the last ten years, the level of voluntary corporate social responsibility initiatives that dictate the actions of corporations has increased.”

Question 17

Corporations can influence the public’s quality of life.

A. True B. False

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C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation

This one is slightly less obvious. We are first told that being socially responsible directly affects our quality of life. Then we are told that corporate social responsibility dictates the actions of corporations. So following that logic, corporations must be able to affect our quality of life.

Question 18

Traditionally, the government have relied upon only the large corporations to help drive corporate social responsibility, whilst they concentrated on the smaller corporations.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: B

Explanation

We are told that “traditionally it has been the sole responsibility of the government to police unethical behaviour”, meaning traditionally no corporation played a part; not even large corporations.

Passage

A well-nourished child can be more likely to be a studious one. But food has been seen as a cost to be cut in times of austerity, rather than an ingredient of good schooling. That may now be changing: as the government worries about obesity – which is fast rising among children – and urges everyone to eat less salt, fat and sugar, and more fruit and vegetables, the deficiency and unhealthiness of most school meals is striking. But cash constraints make change difficult.

Question 19

Children who eat healthily will perform better in exams.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: C

Explanation

The passages says “a well-nourished child can be more likely to be a studios one”, which means they are more likely to study. Whilst the passage suggests eating healthily can help, it does not say definitively if the child will or will not perform better in exams.

Question 20

The number of obese children used to be less than it is now.
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A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation

The passage says, in reference to obesity, “is fast rising among children” meaning in the past it was less than it is now.

Verbal Reasoning – (15 mins for 20 qtns)

TEST THREE:

Verbal Reasoning – Instructions

The verbal reasoning section measures your ability to think logically about written information.

In this test, you will be given passages of text and several statements relating to the text. You will

be asked to decide whether each statement follows logically from the information in the passage.

For each statement there are three answer options:

False – This means that, on the basis of information in the passage, the statement is false.

Passage

Employees in the United Kingdom are now enjoying more holidays than ever before. From 1st April 2009 the minimum statutory entitlement to paid annual leave for workers has increased from 4.8 weeks to 6 weeks (based on a five day working week). This is the minimum, but some employers may offer more – you should consult your contract of employment. However, the employer can choose when you take your holidays. The 6 week entitlement is for an employee in full employment for a year with a five day working week, and includes public holidays. The entitlement for part-time workers is calculated as 6 weeks times their normal working week. Similarly, the entitlement for a full-time worker who does not complete a year with an employer is worked out on a pro-rata basis.

Question 1

From 1st April 2009 workers in the UK who work a five day week are entitled to 30 days? paid holiday per year of work.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

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Explanation: True

Question 2

Employees granted long-term sick leave lose their full entitlement of paid annual leave.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: C

Explanation: Cannot say

Question 3

You have a right to take at least some of your annual holidays during the summer.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: B

Explanation: False

Question 4

The annual leave entitlement of 6 weeks includes public holidays, but some employers may give additional leave entitlement.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation: True

Passage

In the wake of security concerns and the ever-increasing numbers of flying passengers – more than 90 million passengers pass through UK immigration each year – new ways have been sought to recognise passengers who may have a criminal record or are considered “undesirable”. The use of fingerprints is messy and time-consuming, and is not always accurate. A method that has been on trial since 2002 is the “Iris Recognition System.” This method takes a digital image of the iris patterns on the back of the eye and compares it with those that are already stored in a databank. This system has proved to be 100% accurate since no two irises have exactly the same pattern, not even those of identical twins. Even

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the right and left eyes of the same person do not exhibit the same pattern. It is believed that the new method will help to speed up the immigration system as well as make it more secure.

Question 5

It is believed that a new way of recognizing previously identified terrorists could speed up the immigration process and make it more accurate.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation: True

Question 6

The ‘Iris Recognition System’ is not as accurate as the use of fingerprints.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: B

Explanation: False

Question 7

One problem with the ?Iris Recognition System? is that it cannot distinguish between identical twins.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: B

Explanation: False

Passage

In Europe 12 million animals suffer every year in the name of research. The last directive of the European Commission designed to address the issues of animals being mistreated for research was made in 1986. But things have changed. In recent years more experiments involving transfer of genes from one species to another have been carried out, so new guidelines are required. In May 2009 the European Parliament voted to update the rules to better protect laboratory animals. One of their recommendations was a ban on experiments using great apes except those cases where it would benefit the apes themselves, or when this was the only option to investigate diseases that threaten humans.

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Hepatitis C, for example, only occurs in humans and chimpanzees, so there is little option but to use chimps in scientific research into this disease. However, this and other proposed changes are unlikely to be adopted for at least three years.

Question 8: We will have to wait for a directive to be passed that aims to protect animals from being mistreated for research.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: B

Explanation: False

Question 9

New guidelines on the use of animals in scientific research are needed so as to include the recent increase in research using genetic engineering.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation: True

Question 10

The European Parliament recommended that the only instance in which tests on apes be permitted is when that test was in the interests of human life and the results could not be achieved by other means.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: B

Explanation: False

Passage

Identity theft and identity fraud are crimes that were almost unheard of a few years ago. Yet the number of recorded cases of these crimes in the UK has increased from 9,000 in 1999 to 77,500 in 2007. Identity theft is the misappropriation of the identity of another person. Identity fraud is the use of this identity theft in criminal activity. In modern society you need to prove your identity for all sorts of

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reasons – to open a bank account, to obtain a loan, for credit when you make purchases, and so on. An identity thief can use your personal details to do any of these things, even to claim a benefit in your name. All he needs is access to a few of your personal details or a document bearing your name. The identity fraudster will steal or forge your documents, such as a passport or a driving license, and use them in criminal activity. To protect yourself from identity theft, make sure that you don’t give away any personal details unless you are sure it’s safe to do so, and always ke

Question 11

The number of recorded cases of identity theft and identity fraud in the UK has risen exponentially from 9,000 in 1999 to 77,500 in 2007.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: C

Explanation: Cannot say

Question 12: Some identity thieves steal another person?s identity to obtain a benefit in his or her name.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation: True

Question 13: You should protect yourself against identity theft by never applying for a passport or a driving license.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: B

Explanation: False

Passage

Outrage has been rife in London this week as plans were announced to expand the congestion charge zone in London. Despite strong opposition from local residents and workers of affected areas, plans are continuing without delay. The implications of these plans are severe for people living in areas like Clapham and Brixton where residents will have to pay up to three hundred pounds a year to keep their car in their local area. The money will be used to improve public transport and is part of an initiative to increase the use of public transport and decrease pollution levels in the capital.

Question 14

Local politicians are opposing the expansion plans in the affected areas.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: C

Explanation

Cannot say. The passage does not tell us the position of local politicians. It refers to opposition from “local residents” which does not mean the same as ‘local politicians’.

Question 15: The congestion charge is being extended to decongest the capital.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: B

Explanation

False. It is tempting to think this statement is true, but in the last sentence it is clear the money will be used to improve public transportation.

Question 16: The author is against plans to expand the congestion zone.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: C

Explanation

Cannot say. The author presents the negative and positive implications of the plan. The author’s position is not clear

Passage

At the moment GTC, like other European producers, is able to relieve at least some of its over-capacity by exporting, partly to Central America. A decade from now, the region will be largely self-sufficient and trade will be starting to flow the other way. However, for GTC investors, the company’s recent

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restructure could herald better times. The group’s lack of focus and lacklustre returns has been much criticized of late.

Question 17

Restructuring generally produces an increase in profitability.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: C

Explanation

Cannot say. There is not sufficient information in the passage to confirm or refute this statement.

Question 18: In ten years time, Central America will start exporting to Europe.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation

True. The passage clearly states that A decade from now … trade will start flowing the other way.”

Question 19: Most European companies are producing beyond the normal capacity.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot say Correct answer: A

Explanation

True. The passage states that “…GTC, like other European producers, is able to relieve at least some of its over-capacity by exporting”. They keyword here is ‘ over-capacity’.

Passage

The big economic difference between nuclear and fossil-fuelled power station is that nuclear reactors are more expensive to build and decommission, but cheaper to run. So disputes over the relative efficiency of the two systems revolve not just around the prices of coal and uranium today and tomorrow, but also around the way in which future income should be compared with current income.

Question 20

The main difference between nuclear and fossil-fuelled power stations in an economic one.

A. True
B. False
C. Cannot Say Correct answer: C

Explanation

Cannot say

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NIGERIA LNG (NLNG) APTITUDE TEST PAST QUESTIONS AND SOLUTIONS

Abstract Reasoning(16 mins for 16 qtns)

TEST ONE:

Abstract Reasoning – Instructions

In this section you will have to answer questions that require you to follow the logic underlying a set of figures. In each question, you will need to determine which of the possible answers best matches the next figure in the sequence, or replaces a missing figure in the sequence.

Question 1: Which of the options is the next shape in the sequence? Correct answer: A

Explanation

In this question the arrows move around the outside of the grid according to the direction of the arrowheads and a number of places given by the number of arrowheads. However, when two arrows occupy the same quarter of the diagram, the direction of the arrowheads on both arrows reverses.

For the next diagram of the sequence, therefore, the arrow with one arrowhead moves one place clockwise, the arrow with two arrowheads moves two places clockwise and the arrow with three arrowheads moves three places anticlockwise. Since none of them then occupy the same quarter of the diagram, none of the arrowheads are reversed. The correct answer, therefore, is A.

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Question 2: Which of the options should replace the question mark (?) to complete the sequence? Correct answer: D

Explanation

Each diagram shows a regular polygon inside another regular polygon.
The number of sides of the outer polygon decreases by one each time. The number of sides of the inner polygon increases by one each time.
The sum of the sides of the two polygons is always 12.
For the missing diagram of the sequence, therefore, there should be a regular pentagon (fivesided polygon) inside a regular heptagon (seven-sided polygon). The correct answer, therefore, is D.

Question 3: Which of the options is the next shape in the sequence? Correct answer: A

Explanation

In this question, there are three shapes – an asterisk, a square and a dot. Each shape has its own rule to follow.

The asterisk rotates around the inside of the hexagon by 120o clockwise each time.
The square moves across the horizontal axis of symmetry of the hexagon from one vertex to the opposite vertex, then back again. Its colour changes from grey to black to white, back to grey etc. The dot moves up and down the vertical axis of symmetry of the hexagon, occupying three positions – two opposite edges and the centre of the hexagon. Its colour alternates between black and white.
Following all these rules, the correct answer is A

Question 4: Which of the options is the next shape in the sequence? Correct answer: A

Explanation: In this question there are eight matchsticks of two different colours.
Each time, the middle two matchsticks are turned upside down and then the matchstick on the far right is moved to the left.
When these two rules are applied simultaneously, the correct answer is A.

Question 5: Which of the options should replace the question mark (?) to complete the sequence? Correct answer: B

Explanation

In this question there are two rules to follow that are applied alternately.
The first rule is that the numbers of dots in the top row increase by one while the numbers of dots in the second row decrease by one. The second rule is that the numbers of dots in the left column decrease by one while the numbers of dots in the right column increase by one. To obtain the missing diagram of the sequence, the first rule should be applied and the correct answer is B

Question 6: Which of the options is the next shape in the sequence? Correct answer: D

Explanation

In this question there is a single dot, a group of two dots and a group of three dots that move around the twelve sectors of a circle. The single dot always moves one place anticlockwise. The group of two dots always moves two places anticlockwise.

The group of three dots always moves three places anticlockwise.
When all these rules are followed, the next diagram of the sequence is D.

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Question 7: Which of the options should replace the question mark (?) to complete the sequence? Correct answer: B

Explanation: In this question each diagram has two polygons. The total number of sides of the two polygons increases by one each time. For the missing diagram of the sequence, the total number of sides should be eleven. The correct answer is B which shows a heptagon (seven sides) and a rectangle (four sides)

Question 8: Which of the options is the next shape in the sequence? Correct answer: C

Explanation

In this question the dot rotates around the perimeter of the regular hexagon, always rotating in the direction indicated by the arrow. The numbers of places it rotates are: 1 the first time, 2 the second time, 3 the third time etc. To obtain the next diagram of the sequence, therefore, the dot should rotate 5 places in the direction indicated by the arrow, which is clockwise. The correct answer is C.

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Question 9: Which of the options is the next shape in the sequence? Correct answer: A

Explanation

In this question there are two rules to follow that are applied alternately. The first rule is that the spiral is reflected in the diagonal shown. The second rule is that the spiral rotates by 90o clockwise. To obtain the next diagram of the sequence, the first rule should be applied next and the correct answer is A

Question 10: Which of the options is the next shape in the sequence? Correct answer: C

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Explanation: Each box contains 8 straight lines and a circle Only answer C contains 8 straight lines and a circle

Question 11: Which of the options is the next shape in the sequence? Correct answer: E

Explanation: The innermost two rectangles are vertical, then horizontal, then vertical again then horizontal, So in the answer they must both be vertical therefore E is the answer

Question 12: Which of the options is the next shape in the sequence?

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Correct answer: D

Explanation: Each box increments by one blue segment (one eight of the square). So there are 4 segments in box four (half the square is filled). So there must be 5 blue segments (5/8th of the square) in the answer which leaves us with A or D. o
But the diagonal edge of the first segment is also rotating clockwise by 90 each time, so it should be aligned NW in the answer. therefore the answer is D

Question 13: Which of the options is the next shape in the sequence? Correct answer: A

Explanation

The first box has 5 short lines and no long lines, the second box: 4 short & 1 long, the third box: 3 short & 2 long, the fourth box 2 short and 3 long. So each time there is one more long line and one less short line, so in the fifth box there will be 1 short and 4 long lines: the answer is A

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Question 14

Which of the options is the next shape in the sequence? Correct answer: D

Explanation

The first square has 25 black squares, the second has 16, the third 9, the fourth 4 and so the 5th will have one square (reducing sequence of the square numbers 25, 16, 9, 4, 1). Also squares are removed from the right and from the bottom, so the final square will be in the top left corner, thus the answer is D

Question 15

Which of the options is the next shape in the sequence? Correct answer: C

Explanation: The first box has two lines, the second 3, the third 4, the fourth 5 and so the fifth box will have six lines, so the answer is C.

Question 16

Which of the options is the next shape in the sequence? Correct answer: C

Explanation

The first box has 7 straight lines, the second 11, the third 15, the fourth 19 and so the fifth box will have 23 lines, so the answer is C

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TEST TWO:

Question 1: Which of the options is the next shape in the sequence? Correct answer: C

Explanation: Everything rotates clockwise. o
The equilateral triangle rotates about its own centre by 120 each time.
The square rotates about its own centre by 90o each time.o
The regular pentagon rotates about its own centre by 108 each time.
Simultaneously the three shapes rotate by 90o each time about the centre of the large square. Following these rules, the next diagram of the sequence must be C.

Question 2: Which of the options is the next shape in the sequence? Correct answer: C

Explanation: There are two rules to follow. The first rule is that the shapes are regular polygons, with the number of sides increasing by 1 each time. Following this rule, for the next diagram in the sequence, there should be a regular nonagon (nine-sided polygon). The correct answer, therefore, could be A, C or D.

The other rule is that the number of dots inside the polygons increases by two each time.
For the next diagram in the sequence, therefore, there should be 14 dots. The correct answer, therefore, is C

Question 3: Which of the options is the next shape in the sequence? Correct answer: D

Explanation: In this question there are two rules that are performed simultaneously. The first rule is that the shape is reflected in the axis that follows the direction of the arrow. The second rule is that the shape is rotated by 45o anticlockwise each time.

Following the second rule, the answer could be A, C or D. But the first rule tells us that the correct answer must be D. In A, the wrong half of the circle is coloured black. In C, the shape has not been reflected.